1 MCQs in Dermatology for NEET PG
A 58-year-old postmenopausal woman presents with a 3-year history of severe vulvar pruritus and dyspareunia. Examination reveals porcelain-white sclerotic plaques with loss of normal vulvar architecture, as marked **D** in the diagram. The patient has been treated with topical corticosteroids for 6 months and is now considering discontinuation due to side-effect concerns. Which of the following is the most appropriate long-term management strategy for the lesion marked **D**?
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