1 MCQs in Dermatology for NEET PG
A 58-year-old Indian male presents with a 3-year history of pruritic patches on the buttocks and axillae, initially treated as eczema. Over the past 6 months, he has developed infiltrated plaques and now presents with a solitary ulcerated nodular lesion >1 cm on the scalp. Biopsy confirms mycosis fungoides with CD4+ T cells showing loss of CD7 and CD26. The structure marked **D** in the diagram represents the clinical stage of his disease. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
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