1 MCQs in Dermatology for NEET PG
A 22-year-old man presents with a 6-week eruption of polymorphous papules at various stages of evolution—fresh erythematous macules with central hemorrhagic crusting, vesicular lesions, and older hypopigmented varioliform scars distributed over the trunk and flexor surfaces. Skin biopsy shows parakeratotic scale-crust, focal epidermal necrosis with lymphocyte exocytosis, interface dermatitis, and a wedge-shaped lymphocytic infiltrate with extravasated red blood cells. A diagnosis of Pityriasis Lichenoides Et Varioliformis Acuta (PLEVA/Mucha-Habermann disease) is made. For management of this extensive disease, the first-line systemic therapy marked as **A** in the diagram is most appropriate. Which of the following best describes the mechanism and indication for this treatment class?
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