1 MCQs in Dermatology for NEET PG
A 52-year-old man presents with 4 months of painful oral erosions followed by flaccid bullae on the scalp, chest, and axillae that rupture easily. Gentle lateral pressure on perilesional normal-appearing skin produces a positive Nikolsky sign. Tzanck smear shows acantholytic keratinocytes. Histopathology reveals the pattern marked **A** in the diagram—suprabasal intraepidermal acantholysis with a "tombstone" appearance of basal cells. Direct immunofluorescence shows an intercellular "fishnet" pattern of IgG deposition. Which of the following best explains the pathophysiology of this condition?
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