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    SubjectsDermatologySJS/TEN Spectrum
    ClinicalDermatology

    SJS/TEN Spectrum

    1 MCQs in Dermatology for NEET PG

    1 Medium
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    Sample Questions

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    A 34-year-old man with tophaceous gout started allopurinol 6 weeks ago. He now presents with fever, painful erythematous macules coalescing into flaccid bullae, positive Nikolsky sign, painful oral erosions, purulent conjunctivitis, and genital denudation. Histology shows full-thickness keratinocyte apoptosis with subepidermal split. Approximately 22% of body surface area shows epidermal detachment. Which of the following management approaches, as indicated by **B** in the diagram, represents the standard-of-care initial management for this patient?

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