1 MCQs in Dermatology for NEET PG
A 28-year-old Indian woman presents with fever, sore throat, and widespread atypical targetoid lesions on the face and trunk that have progressed to flaccid bullae with positive Nikolsky sign. Oral mucosa shows hemorrhagic crusting and erosions. She had started carbamazepine 10 days ago for newly diagnosed epilepsy. The clinical diagnosis of Stevens-Johnson Syndrome (SJS) is made. The management pathway marked **A** in the diagram is initiated. Which of the following best describes the PRIMARY RATIONALE for this intervention?
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