1 MCQs in Dermatology for NEET PG
A 42-year-old construction worker presents with a 6-month history of bilateral foot pruritus and malodor. He wears steel-toed work boots for 10–12 hours daily in hot weather. On examination, the structure marked **A** shows white soggy macerated scale with underlying erythema and fissuring at the web-space base. KOH preparation confirms branching septate hyphae, and fungal culture grows *Trichophyton rubrum*. The clinical presentation is consistent with interdigital tinea pedis, the most common variant. Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line management for this patient's interdigital disease?
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