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    SubjectsMedicineDieulafoy Lesion
    ClinicalMedicine

    Dieulafoy Lesion

    1 MCQs in Medicine for NEET PG

    1 Medium
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    Sample Questions

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    A 64-year-old man on aspirin presents with sudden hematemesis and hypotension (BP 82/48 mmHg). Upper endoscopy reveals a small (2–3 mm) raised pigmented protuberance on otherwise normal-appearing mucosa in the proximal stomach, with a spurting pinpoint artery and no surrounding ulceration or inflammation. The structure marked **B** in the diagram is identified and treated with epinephrine injection followed by hemoclip placement. Which of the following best describes the pathophysiological basis of bleeding in this lesion?

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