1 MCQs in Pediatrics for NEET PG
A 4-month-old male infant presents with progressive developmental regression, hypertonia, opisthotonic posturing, exaggerated startle response, and optic atrophy. MRI brain shows symmetric white matter hyperintensity in the cerebellum, deep white matter, thalami, and corticospinal tracts. His leukocyte galactocerebrosidase activity is deficient. The EEG pattern marked **A** in the diagram is obtained. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
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