1 MCQs in Pediatrics for NEET PG
A 14-year-old boy with tuberous sclerosis complex presents with progressive morning headaches, vomiting, and blurred vision over the past 3 months. Neuroimaging shows the lesion marked **C** in the diagram, which is causing obstructive hydrocephalus. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacological management for this lesion?
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