50 MCQs in PSM for NEET PG
According to RNTCP guidelines, which of the following is the correct definition of treatment success in TB control?
A 42-year-old female from Mumbai with newly diagnosed pulmonary TB (sputum smear-positive) is enrolled in RNTCP. She is on standard 4-drug therapy (HRZE) and completes 2 months of intensive phase. At the start of continuation phase, she develops jaundice, elevated transaminases (ALT 280 U/L, AST 320 U/L), and total bilirubin 4.2 mg/dL. Hepatitis A and B serology are negative. What is the most appropriate next step in TB management according to RNTCP guidelines?
A 28-year-old woman with newly diagnosed sputum-smear-positive pulmonary TB is started on standard first-line anti-TB therapy. After 2 months of treatment, repeat sputum examination shows persistent acid-fast bacilli (AFB) on microscopy. What is the most appropriate next investigation to assess treatment response and detect possible drug resistance?
A 28-year-old male with newly diagnosed pulmonary TB is enrolled in RNTCP. His sputum smear converts to negative by 2 months. However, at 4 months of treatment, he develops jaundice with elevated transaminases (ALT 180 U/L, AST 200 U/L, bilirubin 3.2 mg/dL). What is the most appropriate next step?
Regarding the Revised National Tuberculosis Elimination Program (NTEP) in India, all of the following statements are correct EXCEPT:
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