Type A aortic dissection with intimal flap in ascending aorta

A 60-year-old man with poorly controlled hypertension and family history of Marfan syndrome presents with sudden tearing chest pain radiating to the interscapular back, diaphoresis, and near-syncope. Examination reveals BP 190/100 mmHg in the right arm and 148/72 mmHg in the left arm, a new diastolic murmur of aortic regurgitation, and diminished left radial pulse. CT angiography demonstrates a linear intimal flap in the ascending aorta at the sinotubular junction, as marked **D** in the diagram, separating true and false lumens and extending into the aortic arch with involvement of the left common carotid artery origin. Which of the following is the most appropriate IMMEDIATE management for this patient?