1 MCQs in Radiology for NEET PG
A 32-year-old G3P2 woman at 28 weeks gestation presents with painless bright-red vaginal bleeding. Transabdominal ultrasound is inconclusive; transvaginal ultrasound confirms the structure marked **A** in the diagram completely covers the internal cervical os. She has a history of two prior cesarean deliveries. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management?
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