1 MCQs in Radiology for NEET PG
A 52-year-old woman undergoes MRI of the thoracic spine for unrelated back pain. The study reveals a T2-hyperintense vertebral lesion with vertical striations at T6, marked as **A** in the diagram. The lesion is confined to the vertebral body with preserved cortex and no epidural extension. On axial imaging, punctate hyperdensities are noted. The patient is asymptomatic with no neurologic deficit. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
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