1 MCQs in Surgery for NEET PG
A 22-year-old man presents with 24 hours of right iliac fossa pain that began periumbilically and migrated over 8 hours. He has anorexia, one episode of vomiting, and low-grade fever (37.9°C). Examination reveals focal tenderness and guarding at McBurney's point with positive Rovsing, psoas, and obturator signs. Alvarado score is 8. Labs show WCC 14.8 with left shift, CRP 68 mg/L, normal lactate, and normal urinalysis. CT abdomen and pelvis is performed. The structure marked **A** in the diagram shows the diagnostic hallmark of acute appendicitis. Which of the following is the gold standard management for this patient's uncomplicated acute appendicitis?
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