Breast Cancer — Surgical Staging and Management

A 48-year-old woman from Mumbai undergoes wide local excision (WLE) for a 1.8 cm invasive lobular carcinoma (ILC) of the left breast. Final histopathology shows clear margins (>5 mm), no lymphovascular invasion, and sentinel lymph node biopsy is negative (0/2 nodes). Tumour is ER/PR positive, HER2 negative. She is anxious about recurrence. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 52-year-old woman presents with a 2 cm palpable mass in the upper outer quadrant of the right breast. Clinical examination reveals no axillary lymphadenopathy. Mammography shows a suspicious lesion with microcalcifications. What is the investigation of choice to confirm the diagnosis before surgical planning?

A 52-year-old woman from Delhi presents with a 2 cm palpable mass in the upper outer quadrant of the left breast. Clinical examination reveals a single ipsilateral axillary lymph node (1.5 cm, mobile, firm). Mammography and ultrasound confirm a suspicious lesion. Core needle biopsy shows invasive ductal carcinoma, grade II. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 52-year-old woman with invasive ductal carcinoma of the breast is being staged. Which single feature best distinguishes Stage IIIA from Stage IIIB disease according to TNM classification?

A 48-year-old Indian woman with T2N1M0 invasive lobular carcinoma of the breast is counselled about surgical options. Which feature best distinguishes a candidate for breast-conserving therapy (BCT) from one requiring mastectomy?