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    SubjectsSurgeryPenetrating Flank Trauma Management
    ClinicalSurgery

    Penetrating Flank Trauma Management

    1 MCQs in Surgery for NEET PG

    1 Medium
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    Sample Questions

    medium

    A 28-year-old man sustains a stab wound to the right flank at the level of the 10th intercostal space. On arrival, he is haemodynamically stable (BP 128/82 mmHg, HR 92/min). Abdominal examination shows a single stab wound with no peritoneal signs. FAST is negative. Local wound exploration under local anaesthesia shows the wound tract does not penetrate the fascia. What is the most appropriate next step?

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