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    SubjectsSurgeryRuptured AAA Management Strategy
    ClinicalSurgery

    Ruptured AAA Management Strategy

    1 MCQs in Surgery for NEET PG

    1 Hard
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    Sample Questions

    hard

    A 72-year-old man with a history of hypertension presents with acute onset severe epigastric pain radiating to the back. On examination, he is hemodynamically unstable (BP 90/60 mmHg, HR 110 bpm). Laboratory tests show elevated amylase (850 U/L) and lipase (1200 U/L). CT angiography reveals a 6 cm abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) with rupture into the pancreatic bed. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate management?

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