Varicose Veins — Management

A 38-year-old woman presents with varicose veins of the left lower limb. Duplex ultrasound shows incompetence of the saphenofemoral junction with reverse flow in the great saphenous vein. She is counselled about treatment options. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial management?

A 42-year-old man presents with varicose veins affecting the left greater saphenous vein (GSV). Clinical examination reveals normal ankle-brachial index and no skin changes. Duplex ultrasonography confirms GSV incompetence with reflux >0.5 seconds. He is counselled about conservative management. Which of the following is NOT a component of conservative management for primary varicose veins?

A 52-year-old woman presents with prominent dilated veins on the medial aspect of her left lower limb. Duplex ultrasound confirms saphenofemoral junction incompetence with reverse flow during Valsalva maneuver. She is otherwise healthy with no contraindications to intervention. Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line definitive treatment for her condition?

A 48-year-old man with a 5-year history of varicose veins presents with acute onset of pain, erythema, and induration along the course of the great saphenous vein in the medial thigh. He reports no fever or systemic symptoms. Duplex ultrasound shows thrombosis within the GSV extending to 5 cm below the saphenofemoral junction, with patent deep veins. What is the most appropriate management?

A 52-year-old woman from Delhi presents with a 10-year history of progressive varicose veins in both lower limbs. She complains of heaviness, aching pain, and occasional swelling by evening. On examination, she has dilated, tortuous veins along the saphenous distribution, mild pitting edema, and skin pigmentation over the medial ankle. Duplex ultrasound shows saphenofemoral junction incompetence with reflux >0.5 seconds and patent deep veins. She has tried conservative measures (compression stockings, leg elevation) for 6 months without adequate symptom relief. What is the most appropriate definitive management?