1 MCQs in Surgery for NEET PG
A 55-year-old woman with a 12-year history of right lower limb varicose veins presents with recurrent superficial thrombophlebitis of the greater saphenous vein (GSV). Duplex ultrasound confirms GSV incompetence with a saphenofemoral junction (SFJ) diameter of 8 mm and reflux time of 1.2 seconds. She has no history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) or pulmonary embolism (PE). Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management?
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