1 MCQs in Surgery for NEET PG
A 35-year-old male presents with a 3-month history of a bulge in the lower abdomen just above the pubic symphysis. On examination, the swelling is midline, irreducible, and tender. Imaging confirms a 4 cm defect in the linea alba. The patient is otherwise healthy with no respiratory symptoms. Which of the following is the most appropriate management at this stage?
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