1 MCQs in Anatomy for NEET PG
A 68-year-old man on warfarin for atrial fibrillation presents with acute onset severe lower abdominal pain and a palpable, tender mass in the lower abdomen. Imaging confirms rectus sheath hematoma. The structural weakness predisposing to this complication is best explained by the anatomy at the region marked **C** in the diagram. Which of the following correctly describes the anatomical arrangement at this level?
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