A 45-year-old woman presents with progressive visual loss over 6 months. MRI brain shows a 2.5 cm sellar mass compressing the structure marked **A** from below. Visual field testing reveals bitemporal hemianopia with superior temporal quadrant defects being most prominent. Serum prolactin is markedly elevated at 850 ng/mL. Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line management?
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