1 MCQs in Anatomy for NEET PG
A 35-year-old male presents to the ED following a twisting injury to the right ankle during a cricket match. He is unable to weight-bear. An AP ankle X-ray in mortise view is obtained. The medial clear space marked **D** measures 6 mm, while the superior tibiotalar clear space measures 3 mm. The lateral clear space is normal. No fracture is visible on the ankle series. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
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