1 MCQs in Medicine for NEET PG
A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department 4 days after an acute anterior wall myocardial infarction. He is hypotensive (BP 88/56 mmHg), tachycardic (HR 118/min), and has markedly elevated jugular venous pressure. On auscultation, heart sounds are muffled. An echocardiogram reveals the structure marked **A** in the diagram — a pericardial sac filled with clotted blood compressing the heart — with right atrial collapse in systole and right ventricular collapse in diastole. Which of the following is the most appropriate IMMEDIATE management?
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