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    SubjectsMedicineDeep Vein Thrombosis
    ClinicalMedicine

    Deep Vein Thrombosis

    1 MCQs in Medicine for NEET PG

    1 Medium
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    Sample Questions

    medium

    A 58-year-old man presents with acute unilateral left leg swelling, pain, and warmth 5 days after total knee replacement surgery. Compression ultrasound is performed. The structure marked **B** in the diagram shows a non-compressible common femoral vein with intraluminal thrombus. Which of the following best describes the pathophysiologic mechanism underlying this finding in the context of his recent orthopedic surgery?

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