1 MCQs in Medicine for NEET PG
A 62-year-old man with a 3-day history of anterior wall myocardial infarction presents with syncope. His 12-lead ECG shows a wide QRS complex with intermittent dropped beats. The feature marked **B** in the diagram—sudden non-conducted P waves without progressive PR lengthening on the preceding conducted beats—is observed. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate management?
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