1 MCQs in Medicine for NEET PG
A 58-year-old man undergoes screening colonoscopy and a polyp is identified in the sigmoid colon. The structure marked **D** in the diagram shows a pedunculated adenoma on a long thin vascular stalk (Paris classification Ip). After endoscopic snare polypectomy, histopathology reveals a tubular adenoma with low-grade dysplasia and no invasion. Which of the following best explains why this morphology carries the LOWEST risk of perforation during endoscopic resection compared to sessile lesions?
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