1 MCQs in Medicine for NEET PG
A 58-year-old man presents with chronic dyspepsia. Upper GI endoscopy reveals nodular thickened folds, erythema, and superficial ulcerations in the gastric antrum. Biopsies show a dense lymphoid infiltrate with lymphoepithelial lesions (atypical small B-cells infiltrating gastric glands). Immunohistochemistry is CD20+, CD5−, CD10−, CD23−, and cyclin D1−. Helicobacter pylori is detected on histology and urea breath test. The diagnosis is gastric MALT lymphoma, as marked **C** in the diagram. Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line management for this patient?
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