A 76-year-old man presents with a 12-month history of progressive gait disturbance described as "walking through molasses" with shortened, shuffling steps and a magnetic quality. He reports increasing forgetfulness and has developed urinary incontinence with urgency over the past 6 months. On examination, he demonstrates gait apraxia. T2-weighted MRI shows the pattern marked **B** in the diagram: marked ventriculomegaly with Evans index of 0.38, disproportionately enlarged subarachnoid spaces with dilated Sylvian fissures and tight high-convexity sulci, callosal angle <90°, and aqueductal flow void. Lumbar puncture opening pressure is 16 cm H₂O (normal). Which of the following best explains the pathophysiology of the condition shown at **B**?
Ready to test yourself?
Test your Medicine knowledge with AI-powered MCQs and detailed explanations — no signup required to try.
Sign up free and practice all 1 Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus MCQs with AI-powered explanations tailored to your performance.
Create Free Account