1 MCQs in Medicine for NEET PG
A 48-year-old man with a 12-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and dyslipidemia presents with acute-onset chest pain radiating to the left arm. His blood pressure is 165/95 mmHg, heart rate 102/min, and respiratory rate 24/min. Troponin I is 2.8 ng/mL (normal <0.04), and ECG shows 2 mm ST depression in leads II, III, aVF with reciprocal changes in V1–V2. He receives dual antiplatelet therapy, unfractionated heparin, and high-intensity statin. Two hours later, his troponin rises to 4.2 ng/mL. Coronary angiography reveals 80% stenosis in the left circumflex artery with TIMI 2 flow and no thrombus. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management?
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