1 MCQs in Medicine for NEET PG
A 28-year-old woman presents to the outpatient clinic with amenorrhea for 6 months, galactorrhea, and mild headaches. Serum prolactin is 180 ng/mL (normal <25 ng/mL). MRI pituitary shows a 12 mm sellar mass. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?
Ready to test yourself?
Test your Medicine knowledge with AI-powered MCQs and detailed explanations — no signup required to try.
Sign up free and practice all 1 Pituitary Disorders – Prolactinoma Management MCQs with AI-powered explanations tailored to your performance.
Create Free Account