1 MCQs in Medicine for NEET PG
A 56-year-old woman with a 10-year history of seropositive rheumatoid arthritis presents with a new deformity of the left middle finger. Examination reveals the classic boutonnière deformity with the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint held in flexion (marked **A** in the diagram) and compensatory hyperextension at the distal interphalangeal joint. There is tender boggy synovitis over the dorsum of the PIP joint and inability to actively extend the PIP joint, though passive correction is still possible. Which of the following best explains the mechanism underlying the PIP flexion marked **A**?
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