1 MCQs in Medicine for NEET PG
A 58-year-old man undergoes routine EEG for evaluation of "spells." During the recording, the technician notes an abrupt-onset rhythmic discharge at 5–7 Hz over bilateral temporo-parietal regions (marked **A** in the diagram). The patient remains fully alert, responsive, and denies any symptoms during the discharge. The discharge lasts approximately 90 seconds and returns to baseline without post-ictal slowing. Which of the following is the most appropriate clinical interpretation and management?
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