Chlamydia — Trachomatis and Pneumoniae

A 28-year-old woman presents with mucopurulent cervical discharge, dysuria, and lower abdominal pain. Gram stain of cervical swab shows intracellular gram-negative diplococci. Nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) confirms Chlamydia trachomatis. She is not pregnant and has no drug allergies. What is the drug of choice for treatment?

A 28-year-old woman from rural India presents with persistent cough, dyspnea, and low-grade fever for 3 weeks. Chest X-ray shows bilateral interstitial infiltrates. Sputum culture on standard media is negative. All of the following regarding Chlamydia pneumoniae are correct EXCEPT:

A 6-week-old male infant born to a mother with untreated chlamydial cervicitis presents with a 2-week history of purulent eye discharge and conjunctival injection. The discharge is copious and bilateral. Gram stain of the conjunctival exudate shows no intracellular gram-negative diplococci. The infant has no respiratory symptoms. What is the most likely diagnosis and the recommended first-line antibiotic?

Which of the following is the characteristic feature that distinguishes Chlamydia trachomatis from Chlamydia pneumoniae in terms of host cell tropism and clinical manifestation?

A 32-year-old woman presents with a 2-week history of persistent dry cough, low-grade fever, and mild dyspnea. Chest X-ray shows bilateral interstitial infiltrates. Sputum culture is negative for routine bacteria. Which finding would BEST distinguish C. pneumoniae from C. trachomatis as the causative agent?