1 MCQs in Microbiology for NEET PG
A 68-year-old man with diabetes mellitus type 2 presents to the emergency department with fever (39.2°C), dysuria, and flank pain. Urine culture grows a gram-negative rod that is lactose-fermenting, indole-positive, and motile. On blood culture, the same organism is isolated. The isolate is resistant to ampicillin and cephalothin but susceptible to ceftriaxone and fluoroquinolones. ESBL testing is negative. Which of the following genetic mechanisms BEST explains this antibiotic resistance pattern?
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