HIV — Virology

Regarding HIV-1 replication and the role of viral enzymes, all of the following statements are true EXCEPT:

A 32-year-old man from Delhi presents with a 3-week history of fever, myalgia, and rash. He reports unprotected sexual contact 4 weeks ago. On examination, he has generalized lymphadenopathy and oral candidiasis. His CD4 count is 180 cells/μL. HIV ELISA is positive, and Western blot confirms HIV-1 infection. What is the most appropriate immediate next step in management?

A 28-year-old woman from Mumbai, known to be HIV-positive for 6 months on ART (tenofovir/lamivudine/efavirenz), presents with persistent fever, weight loss, and a CD4 count of 45 cells/μL despite 6 months of therapy. Viral load is 2,50,000 copies/mL. She admits to poor adherence due to side effects. What is the most appropriate immediate next step in management?

Regarding the structural and genomic organization of HIV-1, all of the following are correct EXCEPT:

A 32-year-old man with newly diagnosed HIV-1 infection (CD4 count 350 cells/μL, viral load 150,000 copies/mL) presents to the antiretroviral clinic. He has no prior antiretroviral exposure and no contraindications to standard therapy. Which of the following is the preferred first-line integrase strand transfer inhibitor (INSTI)-based regimen in India?