48 MCQs in OBG for NEET PG
A 42-year-old woman from urban India attends cervical cancer screening and is found to have a Pap smear showing high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL). She is HPV-16 positive. Colposcopy reveals a well-demarcated lesion with dense acetowhite epithelium, abnormal vessels, and a punctate pattern. Directed biopsy confirms CIN 3. She has completed childbearing. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
A 42-year-old woman with CIN 3 is counselled regarding treatment options. She is concerned about fertility preservation. Which management approach best distinguishes CIN 3 from invasive cervical cancer in terms of treatment intent and outcome?
A 38-year-old woman from rural India undergoes cervical screening and is found to have CIN 2. On colposcopy with directed biopsy, the lesion is localized to a specific anatomical site. What is the most common site of origin of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia?
A 35-year-old woman from Kerala, HPV-18 positive with a history of 3 sexual partners, presents with abnormal cervical cytology showing CIN 2. Colposcopy-directed biopsy confirms cervical intraepithelial neoplasia grade 2. She is counselled about management options. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step, considering her age, HPV status, and lesion grade?
Regarding the management of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN), all of the following statements are true EXCEPT:
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