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    SubjectsOBGGynecological Oncology – Epithelial Ovarian Cancer Management and BRCA-Related Prognosis
    ClinicalOBG

    Gynecological Oncology – Epithelial Ovarian Cancer Management and BRCA-Related Prognosis

    1 MCQs in OBG for NEET PG

    1 Hard
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    Sample Questions

    hard

    A 38-year-old woman with a history of BRCA1 mutation presents with a 3-month history of progressive abdominal distension, early satiety, and pelvic pain. CA-125 is elevated at 450 U/mL. Imaging reveals a complex adnexal mass with ascites. She undergoes staging laparotomy and is found to have stage IIIC epithelial ovarian cancer. After optimal cytoreductive surgery achieving <1 cm residual disease, she receives neoadjuvant platinum-based chemotherapy followed by interval debulking. Which of the following statements regarding her prognosis and treatment is MOST accurate?

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