Ovarian Cancer — Clinical

A 52-year-old woman from Mumbai underwent exploratory laparotomy for a suspected ovarian mass. Intraoperative findings revealed a 6 cm left ovarian tumor with rupture of the capsule, ascites (200 mL), and involvement of the omentum. Frozen section confirmed high-grade serous adenocarcinoma. The surgeon performed total abdominal hysterectomy, bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, omentectomy, and peritoneal biopsies. Postoperatively, she is staged as IIIC. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 48-year-old woman with stage IIIC epithelial ovarian cancer (serous histology) has completed 6 cycles of neoadjuvant chemotherapy (carboplatin + paclitaxel) and achieved a clinical complete response. She is now scheduled for interval cytoreductive surgery. Intraoperatively, the surgeon finds minimal residual disease and achieves R0 resection. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 48-year-old woman with a history of BRCA1 mutation undergoes screening ultrasound and is found to have a 3 cm complex ovarian mass with ascites and elevated CA-125 (450 U/mL). Which feature best distinguishes high-grade serous ovarian cancer from mucinous ovarian cancer in this clinical context?

A 52-year-old postmenopausal woman presents with abdominal distension and elevated CA-125. Imaging reveals a large unilateral ovarian mass with solid and cystic components. Which feature best distinguishes epithelial ovarian cancer from granulosa cell tumor of the ovary?

A 48-year-old woman with stage IIIC high-grade serous ovarian cancer completed 6 cycles of platinum-paclitaxel chemotherapy 3 months ago and achieved a complete radiological response. Her CA-125 has normalized. She has no residual disease on imaging. She is now asymptomatic with good performance status. What is the most appropriate next step in management?