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    SubjectsOBGPreeclampsia — Pathophysiology and HELLP
    ClinicalOBG

    Preeclampsia — Pathophysiology and HELLP

    1 MCQs in OBG for NEET PG

    1 Hard
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    Sample Questions

    hard

    A 32-year-old primigravida at 28 weeks gestation presents to the emergency department with severe right upper quadrant pain, nausea, and vomiting. On examination, blood pressure is 148/92 mmHg, and she has 2+ proteinuria on dipstick. Laboratory investigations reveal: hemoglobin 9.2 g/dL, platelets 85,000/mm³, AST 95 U/L, LDH 720 U/L, and indirect bilirubin 2.1 mg/dL. Peripheral blood smear shows schistocytes. The clinical presentation is consistent with the condition marked **D** in the diagram. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate management?

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