2 MCQs in Ophthalmology for NEET PG
A 35-year-old man with a history of ankylosing spondylitis presents to the ophthalmology clinic with acute onset pain, photophobia, and conjunctival injection in the left eye. Slit-lamp examination reveals fibrinous aqueous reaction and fine keratic precipitates. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?
A 28-year-old man presents with acute onset photophobia, pain, and blurred vision in the right eye. Slit-lamp examination reveals keratic precipitates, anterior chamber reaction (3+ cells, 2+ flare), and posterior synechiae. Intraocular pressure is 18 mmHg. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?
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