1 MCQs in Ophthalmology for NEET PG
A 65-year-old hypertensive man presents with sudden, painless inferior field defect in the right eye. Visual acuity is 6/12. Fundoscopy reveals a wedge-shaped sector of superotemporal flame hemorrhages, dot-blot hemorrhages, dilated tortuous superotemporal vein, and cotton-wool spots that sharply respect the horizontal raphe through the macula. The structure marked **A** in the diagram shows these characteristic sectoral hemorrhages. Which of the following best explains the PATHOGENESIS of the hemorrhages marked **A** in this clinical scenario?
Ready to test yourself?
Test your Ophthalmology knowledge with AI-powered MCQs and detailed explanations — no signup required to try.
Sign up free and practice all 1 Branch Retinal Vein Occlusion (BRVO) - Sectoral Hemorrhages MCQs with AI-powered explanations tailored to your performance.
Create Free Account