3 MCQs in Ophthalmology for NEET PG
A 68-year-old man with a 3-year history of nuclear sclerotic cataract presents with progressive dimming of vision and monocular diplopia. His best-corrected visual acuity is 6/24. He has no other ocular comorbidities. On slit-lamp examination, the cataract is brown and occupies approximately 60% of the lens. He is counseled about surgical options. Which of the following is the most appropriate indication for cataract surgery in this patient?
A 58-year-old woman with a 2-year history of cortical cataract presents with complaints of glare and monocular diplopia. Her best-corrected visual acuity is 6/18 in the affected eye. She is keen for surgery. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A 62-year-old man presents to the ophthalmology clinic with complaints of progressive blurring of vision and glare in both eyes for the past 18 months. On examination, best-corrected visual acuity is 6/18 in both eyes. Slit-lamp examination reveals a posterior subcapsular cataract with intact lens capsule and clear anterior chamber. The patient is keen for surgery. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management?
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