1 MCQs in Ophthalmology for NEET PG
A 72-year-old man with hypertension and chronic corticosteroid use for COPD presents with painless progressive vision loss over 6 months. Slit-lamp examination reveals a posterior subcapsular cataract with intact red reflex. His best-corrected visual acuity is 6/24. He is counselled about cataract surgery. Which of the following is the most appropriate timing for surgical intervention in this patient?
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