1 MCQs in Ophthalmology for NEET PG
A 58-year-old hypertensive man presents with sudden painless vision loss in the left eye. Fundoscopy reveals dilated tortuous retinal veins, four-quadrant flame hemorrhages, optic disc edema, and multiple **cotton wool spots (marked C)** scattered across the posterior pole. Fundus fluorescein angiography shows capillary non-perfusion exceeding 10 disc areas. Which of the following best explains the pathophysiological significance of the cotton wool spots marked **C** in this clinical context?
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