1 MCQs in Ophthalmology for NEET PG
A 62-year-old man with a 10-year history of hypertension presents with sudden painless unilateral vision loss. Fundoscopy reveals diffuse flame-shaped and dot-blot hemorrhages in all four quadrants, dilated tortuous retinal veins, cotton-wool spots, and optic disc edema. The clinical diagnosis is **Central Retinal Vein Occlusion (CRVO)**, marked as **D** in the diagram. Fluorescein angiography reveals ≥10 disc areas of capillary non-perfusion. Which of the following best describes the pathophysiological mechanism underlying the development of **D** in this patient?
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