1 MCQs in Ophthalmology for NEET PG
A 32-year-old man with HIV (CD4 25 cells/mm³) presents with 10 days of progressive painless blurring and floaters in the left eye. On fundoscopy, the left eye shows the appearance marked **A** in the diagram—extensive full-thickness necrotizing retinitis with confluent white-yellow granular opacification interspersed with intraretinal hemorrhages along the major vessels producing a "pizza-pie" appearance, with minimal vitritis (trace-1+). Aqueous PCR is positive for CMV DNA. Which of the following best describes the pathognomonic fundoscopic appearance marked **A** that distinguishes CMV retinitis from other opportunistic infections in AIDS?
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