1 MCQs in Ophthalmology for NEET PG
A 68-year-old man presents with sudden, painless, profound monocular vision loss of 2 hours' duration. On examination, he has a relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD) and the fundus shows the classic appearance marked **A** in the diagram — a cherry-red spot at the fovea with surrounding diffuse retinal whitening. Which of the following is the PRIMARY PATHOPHYSIOLOGICAL BASIS for the appearance of the structure marked **A**?
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