1 MCQs in Ophthalmology for NEET PG
A 28-year-old woman presents with acute monocular vision loss and pain on eye movement for 3 days. Examination reveals a relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD) and the structure marked **A** in the fundus photograph shows swelling with blurred disc margins and hyperemia. MRI brain and orbits with gadolinium reveals enhancement of the optic nerve and two T2 hyperintense lesions in the periventricular white matter. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?
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